Quote:
Originally Posted by cpmac
Ev.Steve:
If you are referring to 1 John 3:2, wasn't he a Jew? In John's day, and until the rapture of the Jewish saints near AD70, the Church was almost all Jewish. After that it became the Church of the Gentiles, because there were no longer any Jews. (Romans 11:32).
cpmac
www.tribulationhoax.com
"Neither entirely futurist, nor preterist, but entirely biblical." |
Can you tell me where in the Bible is stated that rapture is for Jews and Not the Church. I would love to see you admitting to the truth and NOT defend your unbiblical points! I can assure you, you are radical PRETERIST and NOT Biblical. All the way in the thread you have been defending your point and shut eyes to the truth. I better leave you For GOOD IN THIS THREAD. I have learn that you don't want to drop your view even If it is wrong!
Get on with your view; but differentiate Israel and the church.
BTW you will prove yourself when You will witness Lord's coming in air coming for His Bride, Is when you will know that you have been wrong!!!
God bless you for Long thread
Ev. Steve