Ev. Steve:
Do they all have to shout at once, "Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord," or is it enough that they are saved, and are sons of God, as in this next verse?
1John 3:2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.

I think that at least one of His retuns is such that they cannot see Him:
Revelation 1:7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they [also] which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen
Futurists see this as the Future Second Coming. But that is a spiritualized interpretation, because after 2000 years, all they that pierced Him have been dead a long time; they couldn't see Him. And why should all the kindreds of the earth wail to see Him at His Second Coming, when that is what most of the world is waiting for? You can't say that those who "wail" are unbelievers, because the unbelievers do not say "Blessed is He..." and will not see Him.

I think that a literal interpretation shows that this refers to His coming in judgement upon the sinners of Jerusalem in AD70, leading the Roman Army.

I think I understand what you are trying to say, but which interpretation is manmade, and which interpretation is unbiblical? Are you actually reading any of my post/posts, or are you merely making blanket accusations?

cpmac
www.tribulationhoax.com