This all brings us back to the question that started the thread, 1611 or 1769? The name of this board is "AV1611 Bible Forums" and indeed most KJVO websites, forums, publications and whatever have themselves named something to do with AV1611 or 1611 KJV or KJV 1611, but do they really bash the 1611 in favor of the 1769? The 1611 did not have "amen" at the end of Ephesians. I have seen Steven Avery in the past bash Scrivener's "The Greek text underlying the Authorised Version of 1611" for leaving out "amen' at the end of Ephesians. He said something like (paraphrase from memory) "Scrivener really botched up when he left 'amen' out of the last verse of Ephesians. Go look at your KJV! It has 'amen' there! But Scivener who was trying to back-engineer the Greek text followed by the KJV left out the word 'amen' from the end of Ephesians." Ummm. You are mistaken. The 1611 of the KJV, the AV1611 after which this forum is named, that's what left out 'amen' at the end of Ephesians, and Scrivener in establish "The Greek text underlying the Authorised Version of 1611" (note that last bit there, "of 1611", and note well that it says "of 1611", and once again that is "of 1611," because it says "of 1611) left it out because the 1611 left it out. So, if leaving out 'amen' at the end of Ephesians is an error, then it is not Scrivener but the King James version of 1611 that made it. And so we go back and forth now, 1611 or 1769? How about either one is fine with me, and so is Scivener's text and any accurate translation based on it? Just curious here, but everyone who agrees with that position, raise your hand.