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Old 04-23-2008, 08:53 PM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
 
Join Date: Feb 2008
Location: Australia
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Regarding pshdsa's post...

But there is no perfect flawless manuscript extant in Greek or Hebrew... how then can it be true that the Word of God is said to be present to the return of Christ (e.g. the Gospel that Christ said was to be preached before the end)?

Where is the Word of God in Greek or Hebrew, perfect in one volume? (Or, when will this occur before the end, and by what sure method can this occur?)

When are the inhabitants of the Earth going to hear this? (Will all nations have to learn Hebrew and Greek to hear and know the perfect truth of God?)

How can the perfect, all-powerful God fail to give the full sense of the Scripture to the Gentiles, and is God really so petty as to limit Himself to Hebrew and Greek, and really so weak as if He is unable to provide His Word perfectly, fully and utterly in English today?

Is sin, problems, imprecision really more powerful than God and His Word? Is the Word merely under man's control? Has Satan won, ensuring that the Word is not or cannot be sure, perfect, exact, flawless and right to the uttermost jot, tittle and sense in English today?

"He is the Rock, his work is perfect: for all his ways are judgment: a God of truth and without iniquity, just and right is he." (Deut. 32:4).

Last edited by bibleprotector; 04-23-2008 at 08:55 PM.