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Old 05-16-2008, 12:21 AM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
 
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There, you have my position dealing with the King James Only. To further clarify, I do not think that the English can correct the Greek, nor do I hold to the idea that the Greek can correct the English. I DO hold to the idea that the English of the King James Authorized Bible is an accurate, faithful, and correct reproduction of God sanctioned Greek and Hebrew texts so that we can say that it is translationally without error.
But that is not saying that the translation is full or complete in English, that is, that the whole and all the meaning of the original words are exactly and fully presenting the full sense in the English.

"But thou hast fully known my doctrine" (2 Tim 3:10a). "Notwithstanding the Lord stood with me, and strengthened me; that by me the preaching might be fully known, and that all the Gentiles might hear" (2 Tim. 4:17a). This requires that the full translation occur so that we (all Gentiles) may fully know the doctrine in English. Are the Gentiles going to hear only the full truth today if they go to the Greek? Or if it is yet being unlocked and revealed from the Greek? Is it not rather that God has providentially supplied and sanctioned the English Bible to take out from the scattered Greek and Hebrew one good Bible for all?

Last edited by bibleprotector; 05-16-2008 at 12:28 AM.