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Old 05-17-2008, 02:06 PM
freesundayschoollessons
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Quote:
The KJV already is "the language of the people." Unless you mean conversational language -- that it is not, and never was. Even when it was first translated, the KJV retained "archaisms" because it is Biblical English, not conversational English.
Biblical English? It is Shakesperean English with a few biblical terms.
Koine Greek was the common, spoken language of NT times.
Shakesperean English was spoken, conversational English.
The use of colloquialisms throughout demonstrate the conversational nature of the English
All throughout history, the Bible has been and was always intended to be translated in the common language of the people. Neh 8.9
Even the KJV translators clearly noted that they attempted to use "marketplace" language, the same as found in NT times.

"Therefore the word of God, being set forth in Greek, becometh hereby like a candle set upon a candlestick, which giveth light to all that are in the house; or like a proclamation sounded forth in the market-place, which most men presently take knowledge of; and therefore that language was fittest to contain the Scriptures,"