Bro George, you also said;
Quote:
In order for those Jews (at this point in time) to RECEIVE the “gift of the Holy Ghost”, they would have had to: REPENT (1st.); and then be BAPTIZED (in water – 2nd.). There is NO WAY that they would have RECEIVED the Holy Spirit just by BELIEVING Peter’s “words”! You CAN NOT MAKE Acts 2:38 and Acts 10:44 the SAME – WITHOUT CHANGING THE HOLY WORDS OF GOD - AS THEY ARE WRITTEN AND RECORDED IN THE KING JAMES BIBLE!
|
You think I have some erroneous view that the Jews could receive the Holy Ghost without being baptized. But I have scripture to back this belief.
John 7:37 In the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried, saying, If
any man thirst, let him come unto me, and drink.
38 He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water. 39
(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)
You see, not one mention of having to be baptized here, these scriptures clearly say the Holy Ghost should be received by those who
BELIEVE. And the Lord was speaking to Jews here. And the only reason mentioned that they had not already received the Holy Ghost simply by believeing is that Jesus was not yet glorified.
I do not appreciate you and others accusing me of twisting or changing God's Word, or of failing to rightly divide. I have provided very straightforward and clear scriptures to support everything I believe.