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Already, I have shown that Phil. 2:21 is a real difference, for the order of "Jesus Christ" or "Christ Jesus" in the Greek should be the same in the English. So Scrivener was wrong to have "Christ Jesus" for his Greek, when the KJB actually had the order "Jesus Christ" at that place.
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No, all you did was show your ignorance of how Greek and other languages work. There are countless passages where the Hebrew and Greek word order is not the exact same as we find in our English Bible. The Greek especially uses word order to emphasize certain things. For example, John 1:1 that states "the Word was God" actually has "God was the Word" in Greek - same meaning, but the emphasis on the whole passage was on the Deity of the Word and that is reflected in the word order. It is not an error - and the word endings are what determine the word order in English.
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the Vulgate is not totally based on the wrong texts
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It is not based on the TR - so yes, it is based on the wrong texts - doesn't matter whether it is wholly or partly so.
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So, you are actually claiming infallibility, inerrancy, perfection to the very jot and tittle for Scrivener’s TR, even though it differs minutely to the KJB at a number of places.
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Until I am convinced otherwise, yes. I will read your article later when I have some spare time at work or home (at work right now).