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Old 09-23-2008, 01:57 PM
ericwgreene
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Luke View Post
Here is a FACT Eric

Acts 12:4

All modern versions translate it as Passover

The KJB and earlier english translate it as Easter... why?

Well, When Tyndale translated his Bible, he had some understanding of God's word. He knew that the Passover was ONE day, followed by the days of unleavened bread.

He also had to invent a word for Pascha, because no equivelent existed in english (and why would it, we never celebrated any jewish holidays). So he invented the word Passover, which is a good descriptive word.

He used it in every place that Pascha was, except Acts 12:4

His reasoning being that since the passover was PASSED, and it was now the days of unleavened bread, and King Herod couldn't care less about a jewish day, Herod was looking forward to his pagan Easter, which would fall after the days of unleavened bread.

And you can do this little test. Ask a greek man what the word for Easter is - Pascha. Ask a greek man what the word for Passover is - Pascha.

That is a FACT. And the FACT that no modern version includes this, should be enough to put the KJB head and shoulders, knees and toes above the rest.
Luke - first let me thank you for taking the time to seriously respond to my challenge. Next, I must admit ignorance on this particular line of argument (although I do have some vague memory of hearing it before). If we accept your reasoning as correct (and I do not doubt your argument on this) why not just use Tyndale's translation? Why use the KJB?