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Old 05-01-2008, 09:59 PM
sophronismos
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By the way, the original Reina-Valera is from 1602, predating the KJV, and the KJV translators diligently compared the translations of other languages, including this one. In a way, the KJV is based on the Reina-Valera at least partially. And due to the awkward construction of the Spanish possessive and other things it often matches the Greek more literally in word order than the KJV, which doesn't mean anything except that if you read the KJV, the Reina-Valera 1909 and Scrivener's text together, you notice that sometimes the Spanish just has a more literal word order feel to it.

Last edited by sophronismos; 05-01-2008 at 10:04 PM.