Aloha again brother,
Instead of going through your points - one by one this time, let me say that I understand (at least "in part" (: ), where you are coming from and your Scriptural reasons for believing the way that you do. (I am not saying the reasoning is "careless", but it does require a lot of "speculation" or "interpretation" to arrive at your (and others) conclusions.
Let me show you where I am coming from instead:
1 Corinthians 13:9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part.
Who is is speaking? - Paul. Who is he speaking to? The church at Corinth.
Paul says: "we know in part" - that includes Paul and the church. What did they "know in part"? Is it: "knowledge (in general)"?; "knowledge" of the "Canon"?; "knowledge" of the Scriptures? Just exactly what is it that we only "know in part"? I believe that it is referring to - "knowledge" of the Scriptures.
Just exactly what is it that Paul was referring to when he said: "we prophesy in part"? This is easier - I believe that it is referring to Scripture (not the "Canon).
10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.
The "that" in the first part of the verse can only refer to the Lord (at His coming) or (as you propose) the formation of the Canon - the completion of God's Holy word. {I believe that we could agree that it must be one or the other}
I know of no verses in the Bible that promises (or even hints) of a "coming" of the "Canon", but there are numerous verses in both the Old Testament and the New Testament that testify to our Lord's return (His coming again). I think that this is a "point" in my favor.
Then what is the "that" of the second half of the verse - which is done away with? I believe that is referring to Paul's and the church's (and mine & yours) "partial knowledge" of the scriptures. I think that you believe that it is referring to the incompleteness of the Scriptures until the "Canon" was formed. We both have reasons for believing as we do - I believe my reasons involve less "speculation" or "interpretation" on my part than on yours.
11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things.
What would the above verses have to do with the formation of the "Canon"? Paul is illustrating or using a simile to explain "knowing In part". When we were children we didn't know what we know now. He is referring to our "personal knowledge" - not the completion of knowledge or the completion of the "Canon".
12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.
This is why I said that this verse settled the matter for me: the "now" was in Paul's time. "we see through a glass, darkly;" the "we" = Paul and the church. They are seeiing "through" the glass - not looking into it! Do we see "through" the Scriptures? If someone is seeing through a glass they are looking at something on the other side of it - not their reflection.
The "darkly" - would be like seeing through "tinted" windows. Even with the completed Canon we still don't understand everything (i.e. our differences on this topic is a good example).
The " then" is referring to some specific time when an event is going to occur. And when that event does occur - Paul is going to be there! Was Paul present at the formation of the "Canon"?
The "face to face" is the piece de resistance to this matter. How can we (anyone) ignore the other 10 verses in the Bible in the use of this term? Every other place in the Holy Scriptures where the term "face to face" is used it refers to a face to face meeting between 2 parties! If we ignore these Scriptures we are going against God's teaching on HOW to rightly divide His word [Isaiah 28:10 & 13]!
Lastly: "now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known." The "now" is referring (again) to Paul's time. the "then" is at some point of time in the future - at which point Paul ("I") is going to know even as also Paul ("I") is known.
How can this possibly be the formation of the "Canon"? Did God wait until the completion of the "Canon" here on earth before He revealed to Paul everything there is to know? So that Paul (somewhere about 250 A.D.) suddenly knew "even as he was known?" - I think not.
As I said at the beginning of my posts on this subject - This is not an issue that I would break fellowship with a fellow believer. I think I understand where they are coming from. I believe that I have the stronger position (relying on Scripture only) with less personal "speculation" and private "interpretation". There is a whole lot more to this study and it involves knowing what the church of God is; and its purpose; and how it is supposed to function. And the purpose of "gifts" within the church. Obviously we don't have time or the space here to deal with it all. I'm not suggesting that I have all the answers. But I do know where all the answers are and where they aren't.
Yours in the Lord Jesus Christ for His Holy Word,
George
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