Quote:
Originally Posted by Jassy
Sis, you just gave me more confusion. I thought I understood, after your husband's post - but now I am, again, unsure.
Jassy
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Here’s something to chew on. Why the word
fornication as grounds for “putting away” and not
adultery?
Matthew 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Matthew 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
And remember Joseph and his desire?
Matthew 1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
1:19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.
Why would Joseph need to “put away” Mary when they were only espoused? And why was Joseph called her “husband” when they were only espoused? For the Jew/Israelite/Hebrew the espousal was binding, but in the case of fornication, it could be broken with a formal writing of divorce.
This is why the Pharisees accused Jesus of being born in fornication. They did not believe as true Christians do that He was born of a virgin.
John 8:41 Ye do the deeds of your father. Then said they to him, We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God.