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Old 05-24-2009, 06:46 PM
Ed Edwards
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Greenbear: // ... why would God call Jesus and Lucifer/Satan by the same appellations? //


Appellation in
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/appellations
1. a name, title, or designation.

Simple: God did NOT call Lucifer (A name) and/or Satan (a Title) by the same appellation. God used a metaphor that most people can keep straight, but apparently not all. The problem here is a lack of human imagination, not the translation(s)

So how do you at your church determine if a Scripture Problem exists? Do you go to a Rabbi and ask him? Do you vote on the matter like Baptists tend to do (and other congregationalsis do?)

Here is what I think:

If there is an apparent conflict (disagrreement) between two scriptures (translations or within one translation) -- it is NOT God's fault. It is a problem among the person or people having the conflict (disagrreement).

Luke has me pegged here:
"every bible is the perfect word of God"!

Here is my proof text:

2 Ti 3:16-17 (KJV1611 Editon, e-sword.com ):
All Scripture is giuen by inspiration of God, & is profitable for doctrine, for reproofe, for correction, for instrution in righteousnesse,
17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished vnto all good workes.


To the KJVO, "all scripture" = KJV(particular edition) or KJV (all editions). To me there are "all scripture"s others beside the KJVs.