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Old 03-20-2009, 06:23 AM
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tonybones2112 tonybones2112 is offline
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bibleprotector View Post
"amen, corban, mammon, ... raca, Satan, Golgotha" are Hebrew.

Joh 19:17 And he bearing his cross went forth into a place called the place of a skull, which is called in the Hebrew Golgotha:

Is the King James Bible wrong when it says "Hebrew"?

As for "pascha", that is not a KJB word.



While some commentators say that "Bar" is Syrian, this is unlikely, for several reasons,
1. the untranslated words spoken in the New Testament are Hebrew.
2. Hebrew is the proper tongue, a common language at the time, e.g. John 5:2, Acts 1:19, Pilate’s superscription, etc.
3. why would unlearned fishermen know how to speak Syrian?

Ac 21:40 And when he had given him licence, Paul stood on the stairs, and beckoned with the hand unto the people. And when there was made a great silence, he spake unto them in the Hebrew tongue, saying,

Also, Syrian has "Ben", as in "Ben-hadad".

There is no indication of a language called Aramaic being used in the OT to write any portion of the OT, and it is significantly doubtful if the Syrian language is being used at all in the NT.
While we are majoring on the minors here, to that list of commentators we are throwing out let's add Matthew Henry also.

The Chaldee language of Daniel and Ezra is there for all to see. In my pet verse, Daniel 3:25, the corrupted reading is "bar elaheen" which is Chaldee for "a son of the gods". In Hebrew the reading would be "bene eloheem", a "son of the gods". Fortunately the correct reading is "bar eli", "the son of God"; "ben elah" were Daniel 3 written in Hebrew.

When Paul preached the mystery of the Jewish-Gentile Body from Ephesians 3 he preached it by revelation and also by the OT Scriptures, they were all he had at the moment. There are instances of Gentiles mysteriously popping up perhaps where they seemingly didn't belong, as in the portions of Daniel and Ezra. In this contested passage in Matthew we see Christ prophetically hinting at this revelation of Eph. 3 given only to Paul in His use of a Judaized Gentile tongue when he uttered this terrible cry. We are here in Acts 29, looking back on these incidents and similes. This Scripture in Matthew has opened the understanding of this truth unto everyone I ever taught it to(Job 32:8). Of course, you have to be a church splitting, dry cleaning hyperdispensationalist to see this truth.

Grace and peace,

Tony