Quote:
Originally Posted by bibleprotector
"The counsel was being given by the friends to Job. Clearly Elihu was acting as a counseller. On examining commentaries on this verse, while they appear to favour that Job is being referred to, they acknowledge that there are those who think Elihu is being referred to."
Job 42:8 shows that God is not accusing Job of speaking wrongly, "Therefore take unto you now seven bullocks and seven rams, and go to my servant Job, and offer up for yourselves a burnt offering; and my servant Job shall pray for you: for him will I accept: lest I deal with you after your folly, in that ye have not spoken of me the thing which is right, like my servant Job."
"Since Job spoke aright, how could he be the one who "darkeneth counsel by words without knowledge"? Even though he did indeed say, "Behold, I am vile; what shall I answer thee? I will lay mine hand upon my mouth." (Job 40:4). "By doing this, Job was kept from the sin of falsely accusing God of his troubles. (Job's problem was his fear, and confession of it in Job 1:5, which opened the door for Satan's torments in his life.)"
"Clearly, Elihu did speak rightly, but" "Desiring to be teachers of the law; understanding neither what they say, nor whereof they affirm." (1 Tim. 1:7).
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Aloha brother,
I will try (for the last time) to "rightly divide" the word of truth in this matter.
First of all I don't think that we are as far apart on this issue than when we began. I have not checked the "commentators", and it is interesting that there is a difference of "opinion" among them (there almost always is).
You said: "Job 42:8
shows that God is not accusing Job of speaking wrongly, . . . . . Since Job spoke aright, how could he be the one who "darkeneth counsel by words without knowledge"?
If you carefully read the context of Job 42:8, you will see that God did not just say: "
Job spoke aright" (about "
everything"). God said in regards to Job and his three friends:
". . . . . for him (Job) will I accept: lest I deal with you after your folly, in that ye have not spoken of me the thing which is right, like my servant Job."
When Job spoke "of God", he spoke "the thing which is right". Not everything that Job spoke was right, or God would not have admonished, reproved, and rebuked him. But he did speak "the thing which is right" concerning God.
Now to determine "the thing which is right" that Job spoke requires that we review all of Job's words (that he spoke)
concerning God. And a cursory review will show that while Job's friends "
thought" that Job was being
punished (by God) for some sin in his life (for something wrong he had
done); Job not only proclaimed his innocence but also claimed that God allows calamities and tragedies to fall on the
innocent as well as the
guilty
Job's friends ascribed Job's
trials and
testings as being "
punishment" from God (because they "
thought" that the calamities and tragedies that happened to Job couldn't possibly occur, or happen to Job, unless he had sinned). In this they
did not speak of God "the thing which is right", while Job did. As a matter of fact Job goes even further and claims that God allows the wicked to sometimes prosper [Job 21:1-16].
We don't have room to examine this issue in depth, but we can clear up any confusion concerning Elihu by working backwards from Job 42.
Job 42:1 Then Job answered the LORD, and said,
2 I know that thou canst do every thing, and that no thought can be withholden from thee.
3 Who is he that hideth counsel without knowledge? therefore have I uttered that I understood not; things too wonderful for me, which I knew not.
4 Hear, I beseech thee, and I will speak: I will demand of thee, and declare thou unto me.
5 I have heard of thee by the hearing of the ear: but now mine eye seeth thee.
6 Wherefore I abhor myself, and repent in dust and ashes.
Compare Job's "
confession" {
Verse 3} with God's "
accusation" in
Job 38:2:
Job 38:1 Then the LORD answered Job out of the whirlwind, and said,
2 Who is this that darkeneth counsel by words without knowledge?
Job is admitting {in
Job 42:3} that
he is the one that God was speaking of in Job
38:2.
Let us continue to work backwards:
Job 40:6 Then answered the LORD unto Job out of the whirlwind, and said,
7 Gird up thy loins now like a man: I will demand of thee, and declare thou unto me.
8 Wilt thou also disannul my judgment? wilt thou condemn me, that thou mayest be righteous?
Is any one else "in view" other than God and Job? I think not.
And again:
Job 40:1 Moreover the LORD answered Job, and said,
2 Shall he that contendeth with the Almighty instruct him? he that reproveth God, let him answer it.
3 Then Job answered the LORD, and said,
4 Behold, I am vile; what shall I answer thee? I will lay mine hand upon my mouth.
5 Once have I spoken; but I will not answer: yea, twice; but I will proceed no further.
Is there any other man included in this "exchange" other than God and Job? I trow not.
Once more:
Job 38:1 Then the LORD answered Job out of the whirlwind, and said,
2 Who is this that darkeneth counsel by words without knowledge?
3 Gird up now thy loins like a man; for I will demand of thee, and answer thou me.
Are there any other "parties" cited or referred to in this communication between God and Job? I don't think so! Comparing Scripture with Scripture clearly demonstrates that each time these "exchanges" {including Job 42:1-6} took place between God and Job, they were strictly between the two of them - with no one else in view, and referring to NO ONE ELSE!
Why would
Job 38:2 be the ONLY "EXCEPTION"?
I rest my case.
