Originally Posted by TimV

Allow me to make a guess. You don't speak more than one language, do you?

Well, being Australian, most people would say that I dont even speak English very well...but I can usually make myself understood by using sign language, grunting and facial expresion.

And you're not much for history, right? A little FOX NEWS at night?

I do know that some of my relatives had a great time chasing Boers around the veldt until they very sensibly surrendered and became British subjects...besides that a smattering of world and general history that I picked up at school, reading books and travelling the world 6 or 7 times.

Tell me why should a group of translators care one way or another what a bunch of Englishmen did?
Yes, pride and arrogance can lead men to make bad decisions...

Do you think that the Gothic version was based on the KJV? If so, why? If not why?
Ooh, a hard one!...I guess that would depend on which was written first...did Wulfila live before or after King James? is AD600 before or after AD 1611?....can I use a calculator?

Sould the Afrikaner translators have referenced the TR and MH texts, or would you prefer that they (remember their people didn't speak English) have used the KJV???

Well, obviously, since it is well known that Afrikaaner farmers are fluent in Hebrew, koine Greek , Latin etc, why would anyone expect them to refer to an already completed work written in an obscure language such as English?

Please let fundy answer this post rather than covering for him. Thanks.