OK, let me ask you this: what, in your opinion, is the single best example of the deviation of modern translations from the KJV? What passage, laid side by side, is going to give the clearest indication of both a significant change in the text, and a significant impact on Christian doctrine and belief?

I'm not looking for a proof text, just looking for something that can clearly and directly point to the differences, without referring people to a long list of references that they're probably not going to look up to compare.

In the other forum discussion that's going on, one person finally did say "Thank you, Lee, you've given me something to think about." Everyone else has pooh-poohed me . . . one person even said "Don't talk about textual criticism if you don't know the field." Some pseudo-scholar saying "let the experts take care of this--you don't know what you're talking about."

Sigh.

Lee