That would be alright if you made just a mistake, but then this statement:
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Anyway, what is the difference.
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In other words, yet implying that we do believe that KJB was made by inspiration 1604-1611, because
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How did God give us a perfect Bible if He did not inspire the translators.
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That is, since we say perfect, and since inspiration was perfect in the day of Moses or Paul, therefore us saying perfect means that the KJB men were inspired. This is a false argument.
The real logic of faith is this: The Scripture is given by God. God is all powerful. Scripture is perfect. Therefore, when God gave the Scripture perfectly, He intended that it should also be perfect before the Second Coming. Therefore, by His power, He has been able to ensure that the Church generally has had His Word, and specifically allowed for men in the Church to be able to discern and present His Word in the last days. This is because in all the copies, there is some correct Scripture there, and in the majority of the majority of them are they correct (in Greek). Selecting the correct words from the Greek to translate into English is not "inspiration". And to understand the bigger picture of readings, possible translations and the like, and to do it rightly is rather providential by God's supply of the right men at the right time and right place with the right things to make the right Bible, which is not "inspiration", but Divine Providence.
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Plus, how do we know the KJV is perfect?
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Internal evidence: what it says about itself is exactly true and applies fully and exactly to itself (unlike other versions).
External evidence: all the signs are there showing that the KJB is it.
When you take the big picture, it is clear that there can be only one.