Question on Daniel 3:25
 

Back in the 1980s I was sitting in my local Burger Chef restaurant(Tells you how long ago THIS was)reading a tract on bible verse corruptions. One of my pet verses to show people is Daniel 3:25. The writer of this tract stated the source reading("...a son of the gods...")as opposed to the true reading(...the son of God...")was authored by Theodotian. I can't remember the name of the tract and it is long since lost, the author gave no source for this statement.

Anyone got any input on this? I'm trying, if possible, to track down the genesis(no pun intended)of this particular corruption of the OT in Daniel, if possible.

Grace and peace

Tony

I have a old RSV its in that one, also in the NIV, Amplified, NASB, and the 1967 Schofield KJV. It is not in my 1769 edition of the Thompson chain, 1769 Scofield lll, or the NKJV.

Seems its pretty much in all of the newer translations, so its got to be an Alexandria error, you know the "best text". :) Or possibly Westcott, and Hort.

Samuel, thank you. God identifies in I believe Deut. that the "gods" are devils, or as some Christians like to call, "demons". Paul says the things the Gentiles sacrifice to are "devils". So we see all the pagan and non-Christians "gods" are Satan receiving the worship. I'm floored with the idea of many Christians with these false bibles agreeing that King Neb is identifying the son of God as a devil, doctrinally.

Another tip: Many say "...the correct reading in the ORIGINAL HEBREW, bene' elohim(a son of the gods)..." Daniel 3 is NOT WRITTEN in Hebrew, but Chaldee.
The correct reading is "bar elah"(the son of God).

I deal with all the standard omissions, additions, and corruptions, Dan, 3:25 and Rev. 1:6 are two that have been sadly neglected.

Thanks again Samuel and a great day to you.

Grace and peace,

Bones

Yes I am aware part of Daniel is in Chaldee, many folks are not. I mentioned that the NKJV, does not contain the corruption in Daniel 3:25. But in no way does that vindicate the NKJV, it also contains many of the corruptions of the other MV's.

I don't have my NKJV in front of me(I had 135 versions of the bible in English before they were stolen in an estate dispute)but I think it reads "...His God and Father..." in Revelation 1:6 instead of the correct "...God and His Father..."

I used to have a Jimmy Swaggart NT that said something about the "...ungoldy..." in I Peter instead of "...ungodly...". I used to ask my Neoevangelical friends if I should trash it.

Grace and peace

Bones

Yes, it reads, "...kings and priests to His God and Father.."

Thank you. The Greek reads, literally translated, God and Father His. The Alexandrian translators insists the KJV translators broke a grammar rule not invented till the late 1700s.

Ahem...

Grace and peace

Tony