There is a false teaching that says that the main language spoken in Judaea in the time of Christ was "Aramaic". This is clearly false, because:
1. The NT was written in Greek.
2. Hebrew is also spoken in the NT.
3. Places where Syriack was spoken are listed as other tongues on the day of Pentecost.

As for the "Eli"/"Eloi" difference, I have also pointed out that John Gill states that Jesus on the cross cried out in Hebrew as recorded both in Matthew and Mark. It is unlikely, given the various points above, that Jesus spoke in anything but Hebrew and Greek from the cross.

As for Christ's witness to the Gentiles, we see that Greek and Hellenic culture is the main "Gentile witness" of the day. For example, Paul talked about "For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek." (Rom 1:16). And again, "For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him." (Rom. 10:12). Therefore, Christ speaking Greek is already indication that the Gospel should go forth to the Gentiles, and that they should be the building up of the tabernacle of David, and for the endtime conversion of the nation of Israel, etc.

On another level, we find that Greek culture and words do come into the KJB, and do affect modern-time Christianity because of the largely-Greek origins of the Church. Thus, our words like "baptise" etc. show it. Also, we find a Latin influence in our words and culture today. But to "Syriack" we find nothing, except perhaps occult arts, etc.

The thoery that Christ never spoke Aramaic is not a new one, and seems to have been born in the first part of the 20Th Century. Here is one of several links I found regarding this theory:

http://www.godward.org/Hebrew%20Root...k%20hebrew.htm

I consulted John Gill's commentary and discovered it had this to say:

"saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani: which words are partly Hebrew, and partly Chaldee; the three first are Hebrew, and the last Chaldee, substituted in the room of "Azabthani"; as it was, and still is, in the Chaldee paraphrase of the text in Ps 22:1, from whence they are taken,"

It's not a belief I feel one worth contending over, nor of any serious doctrinal consideration.

Grace and peace my friend

Tony

Great Post Thomas,

I am here in Southeast Asia in the Philippines

blessings bro

LOL, I just realized this guy Thomas never answered my question from post no. 7, he just made two comments and left... :rolleyes:

I think it might be because the topic got off the main thought of his and spiraled into another direction. As I remember the original topic was the KJV being used to find a "perfect" Greek "text". We have no need of a "perfect Greek text" except for Greeks in the nation of Greece( and Cyprus). Greek is not some magical language that the Christian "colleges" try to make it into. That's not the main purpose of Christianity. The main purpose of Christianity is to make converts for and to Christ. In any endeavor out there we need ask ourselves, does this make converts for Jesus Christ? I never knew of of a "variant reading" making so much as one.

He is risen Brother.

Grace and peace

Tony

THOMAS!!!! come back here and answer my question, brother! :cool: