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boaz212 04-18-2009 02:18 PM

NT Quotations from the OT
 
This question is a bit more general in nature. It has to do with the differences of the NT quotations from the OT. One example is found below. The OT says "I will require it of him" but the NT says "shall be destroyed from among the people.

Deuteronomy 18:19 (King James Version)

19And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him.


Acts 3:23 (King James Version)
23And it shall come to pass, that every soul, which will not hear that prophet, shall be destroyed from among the people.

What is the general rule for discerning the differences? I have never really examined the quotations closely and I didn't know how to answer my friend when he asked me about it.
Thanks for your help.
Tim

Winman 04-18-2009 02:30 PM

It that person would have gone one more verse, they would understand.

Deut 18:18 I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. 19 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him. 20 But the prophet, which shall presume to speak a word in my name, which I have not commanded him to speak, or that shall speak in the name of other gods, even that prophet shall die.

Act 3:23 And it shall come to pass, that every soul, which will not hear that prophet, shall be destroyed from among the people.

The Holy Spirit is completely free to re-phrase himself.

tonybones2112 04-18-2009 11:43 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Winman (Post 18347)
It that person would have gone one more verse, they would understand.

Deut 18:18 I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. 19 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him. 20 But the prophet, which shall presume to speak a word in my name, which I have not commanded him to speak, or that shall speak in the name of other gods, even that prophet shall die.

Act 3:23 And it shall come to pass, that every soul, which will not hear that prophet, shall be destroyed from among the people.

The Holy Spirit is completely free to re-phrase himself.

I agree 100 percent. A "christian" objected to my calling the Old Testament "the law" when Paul does the same:

1Co 14:21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.

Paul is not quoting from the "tanach"(tanakh), the five books of Moses, he is quoting Isaiah 28, from "the prophets":

Isa 28:11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.

Luke 4:18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
19 To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.
20 And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him.

Christ reads from Isaiah 61 in the above passage, note he leaves off the "...the day of vengeance of our God..."

Isaiah 61:1 The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound;
2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;

Any writer(including God) is allowed what is called "free quotation" of their work and to modify it as they see fit. While many teach and believe a "gap" between Genesis 1:1 and 1:2, I think our time is better spent exploring legitimate "gaps" such as the one that occurs right in a verse such as in Isaiah 61:2. At the time Christ preached this in the synagogue, He was the gentle Prophet Who would, we see looking back, be crucified, and then at His Second Coming be the Instrument of "...our God's vengeance..."

It's a good lesson to you in the petty excuse The Original Manuscript Frauds make that ..."NO translation is INSPIRED!" There are 300+ "translations" in the NT of the OT. That being so, why then is not the English translation I hold in my hands also "inspired"?

Grace and peace to you

Tony

Luke 04-19-2009 12:37 AM

Yeah, I have been reading about that (or, it's just come up a lot lately).

Peacock calls it the "literary law" and I am not sure if it's a real law, but it makes sense.

God can quote Himself however He wants, but man must quote Him word for word.


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